Educate 'The Generation'

  1.  A 30-year-old pregnant female is undergoing routine blood tests . Pregnancy is associated with an increase in which of the following? A) Mean Cell Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC) B) Serum ferritin concentration C) Hematocrit D) Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC) ✅ Answer: D) Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC) Explanation: Pregnancy leads to increased TIBC due to higher transferrin synthesis to compensate for increased iron demand. Serum ferritin and iron decrease due to increased iron utilization. Hematocrit reduces due to physiological hemodilution , not an actual decrease in RBC mass. DR MARIA RAFI ;923324747587 2.  A 28-year-old female, para 2+0 , presents with Hb 7 g/dL . What is the next best investigation? A) Hb electrophoresis   B) Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) C) MCV and peripheral smear ✅ D) Serum iron Answer: A) Hb electrophoresis Explanation: The first step is to check MCV (Mean Corpuscular Volume) to classify anemia...

1. A 32-year-old G2P1 woman with a previous cesarean section presents to OPD at 30 weeks of gestation. She has a history of chronic hypertension and is on oral labetalol 100 mg twice daily. Her BP is 160/100 mmHg, and fundal height corresponds to 26 weeks. Doppler ultrasound shows reduced end-diastolic flow. What is the next step in management? A. Ductus Venosus Doppler B. Umbilical and Middle Cerebral Artery Doppler C. Middle Cerebral Artery Doppler D. Uterine Artery Doppler Answer: A. Ductus Venosus Doppler Explanation: Reverse end-diastolic flow in umbilical artery Doppler is an ominous sign of fetal compromise. Ductus Venosus Doppler is the next step to assess fetal well-being, particularly cardiac compromise to time delivery before time  2. A 35-year-old P4+0 woman presents with complaints of something coming out of the vagina. On POP-Q staging, the findings are Aa +3, Ba +6, C -8, Ap +3, Bp +6, and TVL 10 cm. What is the best management option? A. Manchester Rep...

1. A multigravida at 40 weeks requests induction because her husband is her only caretaker. There are no risk factors. What is the best management? a) Induction of Labor (IOL) b) Membrane sweep c) Cesarean section d) Expectant management Key: b) Membrane sweep Explanation: A membrane sweep is a non-invasive method to induce labor naturally. It reduces the need for formal induction while allowing spontaneous labor progression. 2. A mother at 38 weeks wants IOL for social reasons. What should you tell her? a) Induction of labor b) Cesarean section c) Membrane sweep and counseling about neonatal risks d) Admit and monitor Key: c) Membrane sweep and counseling about neonatal risks Explanation: Inducing labor before 39 weeks without medical necessity increases neonatal risks. Membrane sweep is a safer option. 3. A woman with a previous one C-section wants a vaginal birth. What is the safest method for IOL? a) PGE2 b) PGE1 c) Cervical catheter d) Oxytocin Key: c) ...

  1. A 13-year-old girl (P0) presents with irregular vaginal bleeding since menarche one year ago. Examination is unremarkable, and lab reports are normal. What is the best management? a) Anti-Prostaglandins b) Cyclical Progesterone c) Tranexamic Acid d) Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills Key: d) Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills Explanation: Adolescent abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) is often due to anovulatory cycles. Combined oral contraceptive pills (COCPs) help regulate menstrual cycles by providing hormonal balance. 2. A 27-year-old primigravida (P0) with a breech presentation is being evaluated for the possibility of vaginal delivery. In which type of breech presentation does X-ray pelvimetry still have a role? a) Flexed Breech b) Extended Breech c) Face Presentation d) Shoulder Presentation Key: b) Extended Breech Explanation:  . Among breech presentations, extended breech is considered the safest for vaginal delivery due to better head flexion and descent. 3. A 30-y...