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ANEMIA IN PREGNANCY : MCQS AND IMPORTANT MCQS By DR MARIA RAFI

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  1.  A 30-year-old pregnant female is undergoing routine blood tests . Pregnancy is associated with an increase in which of the following? A) Mean Cell Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC) B) Serum ferritin concentration C) Hematocrit D) Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC) ✅ Answer: D) Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC) Explanation: Pregnancy leads to increased TIBC due to higher transferrin synthesis to compensate for increased iron demand. Serum ferritin and iron decrease due to increased iron utilization. Hematocrit reduces due to physiological hemodilution , not an actual decrease in RBC mass. DR MARIA RAFI ;923324747587 2.  A 28-year-old female, para 2+0 , presents with Hb 7 g/dL . What is the next best investigation? A) Hb electrophoresis   B) Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) C) MCV and peripheral smear ✅ D) Serum iron Answer: A) Hb electrophoresis Explanation: The first step is to check MCV (Mean Corpuscular Volume) to classify anemia...
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🩺 Managing Malignant Germ Cell Tumours: Key Insights and Surveillance Strategies

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  🩺 Managing Malignant Germ Cell Tumours: Key Insights and Surveillance Strategies Malignant ovarian germ cell tumours (MOGCTs) are a rare yet critical subset of ovarian cancers, constituting 1.5% of cases in Europe.  With approximately 100 diagnoses annually in the UK, effective management and meticulous follow-up are essential. Here are some crucial points and surveillance strategies for managing MOGCTs:  🔍 Early Detection and Treatment - Prevalence: MOGCTs represent 1.5% of ovarian cancers in Europe. - Early Diagnosis: 60-70% are diagnosed at an early stage. - Initial Treatment: Typically treated with surgery followed by active surveillance or adjuvant chemotherapy. - Chemotherapy Sensitivity: MOGCTs are more responsive to chemotherapy compared to other ovarian tumour   🏥 Surgical Considerations - Radical Surgery: Recommended for women who have completed their family or are beyond childbearing age, including total hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophor...
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ANEMIA IN PREGNANCY : MCQS AND IMPORTANT MCQS By DR MARIA RAFI

Image
  1.  A 30-year-old pregnant female is undergoing routine blood tests . Pregnancy is associated with an increase in which of the following? A) Mean Cell Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC) B) Serum ferritin concentration C) Hematocrit D) Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC) ✅ Answer: D) Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC) Explanation: Pregnancy leads to increased TIBC due to higher transferrin synthesis to compensate for increased iron demand. Serum ferritin and iron decrease due to increased iron utilization. Hematocrit reduces due to physiological hemodilution , not an actual decrease in RBC mass. DR MARIA RAFI ;923324747587 2.  A 28-year-old female, para 2+0 , presents with Hb 7 g/dL . What is the next best investigation? A) Hb electrophoresis   B) Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) C) MCV and peripheral smear ✅ D) Serum iron Answer: A) Hb electrophoresis Explanation: The first step is to check MCV (Mean Corpuscular Volume) to classify anemia...
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IMPORTANT MCQS OF 2024for imm ; fcps ; mcps ; IMM (MUST DO BEFORE EXAM DAY )

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  1. A 13-year-old girl (P0) presents with irregular vaginal bleeding since menarche one year ago. Examination is unremarkable, and lab reports are normal. What is the best management? a) Anti-Prostaglandins b) Cyclical Progesterone c) Tranexamic Acid d) Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills Key: d) Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills Explanation: Adolescent abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) is often due to anovulatory cycles. Combined oral contraceptive pills (COCPs) help regulate menstrual cycles by providing hormonal balance. 2. A 27-year-old primigravida (P0) with a breech presentation is being evaluated for the possibility of vaginal delivery. In which type of breech presentation does X-ray pelvimetry still have a role? a) Flexed Breech b) Extended Breech c) Face Presentation d) Shoulder Presentation Key: b) Extended Breech Explanation:  . Among breech presentations, extended breech is considered the safest for vaginal delivery due to better head flexion and descent. 3. A 30-y...
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IMPORTANT MCQS FILE 3 (70 mcqs) : IMM ; MCPS ; FCPS

1. A 32-year-old G2P1 woman with a previous cesarean section presents to OPD at 30 weeks of gestation. She has a history of chronic hypertension and is on oral labetalol 100 mg twice daily. Her BP is 160/100 mmHg, and fundal height corresponds to 26 weeks. Doppler ultrasound shows reduced end-diastolic flow. What is the next step in management? A. Ductus Venosus Doppler B. Umbilical and Middle Cerebral Artery Doppler C. Middle Cerebral Artery Doppler D. Uterine Artery Doppler Answer: A. Ductus Venosus Doppler Explanation: Reverse end-diastolic flow in umbilical artery Doppler is an ominous sign of fetal compromise. Ductus Venosus Doppler is the next step to assess fetal well-being, particularly cardiac compromise to time delivery before time  2. A 35-year-old P4+0 woman presents with complaints of something coming out of the vagina. On POP-Q staging, the findings are Aa +3, Ba +6, C -8, Ap +3, Bp +6, and TVL 10 cm. What is the best management option? A. Manchester Rep...
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